The family of a 46-year-old man brings him to the hospital because of several weeks of worsening fatigue, confusion, falls, and blurry vision. The day after hospital admission, he is diagnosed with HIV and has a CD4 count of 52 cells/mm3. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain reveals diffuse white matter abnormality, most dense in the left frontal region, with minimal enhancement (Figure 1). Lumbar puncture reveals noninflammatory cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) with a positive John Cunningham (JC) virus DNA PCR.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial therapy for this condition?
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Question Last Updated
September 30th, 2024
September 30th, 2024
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