A 42-year-old woman with longstanding HIV who is not taking antiretroviral medication presents to clinic for evaluation of visual floaters and blurry vision in her right eye for the past 2 days. An urgent ophthalmologic evaluation demonstrates a region of opacified discolored retina involving the optic nerve head extending adjacent to the macula (Figure 1). She is diagnosed with sight-threatening cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis. The most recent laboratory studies obtained 6 months prior showed a CD4 count of 22 cells/mm3.
Which one of the following would be recommended as a preferred regimen for the initial treatment of CMV retinitis in this woman?
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Question Last Updated
September 29th, 2023
September 29th, 2023
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