A 37-year-old cisgender man with no known medical problems is admitted to the hospital with a 2-week history of headache, photophobia, nausea, vomiting, poor appetite, and night sweats. Computed tomographic (CT) brain scan showed no mass lesions and no midline shift. Lumbar puncture demonstrates an opening pressure of 17 cm H2O, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) examination shows 16 cells/mm3 (85% lymphocytes), a glucose of 26 mg/dL, and a protein of 90.5 mg/dL. The CSF cryptococcal antigen is positive (titer of 1:512). The serum cryptococcal antigen is positive (titer of 1:512). An HIV-1/2 antigen-antibody test is performed and is positive.
Which one of the following would be recommended as preferred initial antifungal therapy for this man?
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Question Last Updated
September 29th, 2023
September 29th, 2023
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