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Opportunistic Infections: TreatmentQuestion 13/20

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A 27-year-old cisgender man with HIV was recently diagnosed with cryptococcal meningitis. He received 2 weeks of induction therapy with intravenous liposomal amphotericin B and oral flucytosine, and he just completed 8 weeks of consolidation therapy with oral fluconazole 800 mg daily. He began taking antiretroviral therapy 5 weeks after starting the consolidation antifungal therapy. At this point, he has no neurologic symptoms and is tolerating antiretroviral therapy well.

Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this man?

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Question Last Updated
September 29th, 2023

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