A 34-year-old transgender woman with a recent diagnosis of HIV presents for an initial evaluation. She has thick white plaques on the hard palate and buccal mucosa that easily scrape off with a tongue depressor (Figure 1). She denies dysphagia. You make a clinical diagnosis of pseudomembranous candidiasis (thrush). She has never received medications to treat oral candidiasis.
Which one of the following is considered the preferred therapy for the initial treatment of this condition?
Figure 1. Pseudomembranous Candidiasis.
Source: photograph from David H. Spach, MD
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Question Last Updated
September 30th, 2023
September 30th, 2023
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