A 58-year-old transgender woman is seen in clinic for a follow-up visit. She was diagnosed with HIV in the mid-1990's and has received multiple antiretroviral regimens, including several older HIV protease inhibitors. She experienced two prior episodes of virologic failure while taking older, less effective antiretroviral regimens. Prior HIV genotypic drug-resistance assays showed the reverse transcriptase mutations M41L, K103N, M184V, G190A, L210W, and the protease mutation D30N (not a darunavir-associated mutation). The tentative plan is to simplify the antiretroviral regimen and witha regimen of boosted darunavir, dolutegravir, and doravirine.
Which one of the following is TRUE regarding the use of darunavir in this woman?
Figure 1. ODIN Study: Protocol Design
Source: Cahn P, Fourie J, Grinsztein B et al. Week 48 analysis of once-daily vs. twice daily darunavir/ritonavir in treatment-experienced HIV-1-infected patients. AIDS 2011; 25:929-39.
Figure 2. ODIN Study: Week 48 Virologic Response
Source: Cahn P, Fourie J, Grinsztein B et al. Week 48 analysis of once-daily vs. twice daily darunavir/ritonavir in treatment-experienced HIV-1-infected patients. AIDS 2011; 25:929-39.
Figure 3. ODIN Study: Changes in Lipid Parameters from Baseline
Source: Cahn P, Fourie J, Grinsztein B et al. Week 48 analysis of once-daily vs. twice daily darunavir/ritonavir in treatment-experienced HIV-1-infected patients. AIDS 2011; 25:929-39.
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Question Last Updated
September 22nd, 2023
September 22nd, 2023
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