A 31-year-old pregnant cisgender woman who is in the first trimester of pregnancy presents to urgent care with 3 days of fever, headache, muscle aches, and a diffuse erythematous rash. She is noted to have cervical and axillary lymphadenopathy. She reports condomless sex approximately 3 weeks ago with a new male partner. There is clinical suspicion for acute HIV. The HIV-1/2 antigen-antibody immunoassay is positive, the HIV-1/HIV-2 antibody differentiation immunoassay is negative, and the quantitative HIV RNA is positive with a level of 688,512 copies/mL. A diagnosis of acute HIV is made, and an HIV drug resistance genotype is ordered. She has never received HIV preexposure prophylaxis (PrEP).
Which one of the following is recommended regarding antiretroviral therapy?
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Question Last Updated
June 7th, 2024
June 7th, 2024
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