A 10-year-old boy with perinatally acquired HIV returns to your clinic for routine follow-up. He has maintained suppressed HIV RNA levels for years on a regimen of nevirapine, zidovudine, and lamivudine. He is having increasing side effects with this regimen and does not like the twice-daily dosing and the number of pills. You are considering switching to a new regimen that includes an integrase strand transfer inhibitor (INSTI). He weighs 32 kg and has a sexual maturity rating (SMR) of 2.
Based on recommendations from the Pediatric ART Guidelines, which one of the following would be considered a preferred INSTI-based regimen for this 10-year-old boy?
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Question Last Updated
September 26th, 2023
September 26th, 2023
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