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HIV Question Bank

Sexually Transmitted InfectionsQuestion 19/20

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A 41-year-old cisgender man with HIV is evaluated in a clinic with a 7-day history of rectal pain, rectal bleeding, and constipation. He recently had condomless receptive anal sex. Anoscopic examination shows a mucopurulent discharge and a few shallow mucosal ulcers. Testing of the rectal region is negative for herpes simplex virus, positive for Chlamydia trachomatis, and negative for Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Serologic testing for syphilis is negative.

Based on available information, which one of the following regimens is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

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Question Last Updated
September 29th, 2023

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