A 51-year-old cisgender woman with HIV is seen in the clinic and reports recent close contact with an individual who had recently been diagnosed with active tuberculosis. This information has been verified with the local health department. She is asymptomatic. An interferon gamma release assay (IGRA) is negative, and the chest radiograph is normal. The most recent laboratory studies obtained 2 months prior showed a CD4 count of 412 cells/mm3 and an undetectable HIV RNA level. She has been taking dolutegravir-lamivudine for about 18 months.
Which of the following describes the next best step in management?
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Question Last Updated
September 28th, 2023
September 28th, 2023
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