A 53-year-old cisgender man with HIV is seen in clinic to start a new antiretroviral regimen after recently developing renal disease secondary to hepatitis C virus (HCV)-associated membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis. His estimated glomerular filtration rate recently decreased to 45 mL/min. He is HLA-B*5701 positive. He is currently taking rilpivirine-tenofovir DF-emtricitabine. His HIV RNA has been suppressed for 3 years, and he has no history of virologic failure or antiretroviral drug resistance.
Which one of the following is TRUE about simplifying to a dual antiretroviral maintenance therapy regimen of dolutegravir-rilpivirine?
Figure 1 (Image Series). SWORD-1 and SWORD-2: Simplification to Dolutegravir-Rilpivirine as Maintenance Therapy
Source: Llibre JM, Hung CC, Brinson C, et al. Efficacy, safety, and tolerability of dolutegravir-rilpivirine for the maintenance of virological suppression in adults with HIV-1: phase 3, randomised, non-inferiority SWORD-1 and SWORD-2 studies. Lancet. 2018;391:839-49.
Figure 1B. SWORD-1 and SWORD 2: Results
Source: Llibre JM, Hung CC, Brinson C, et al. Efficacy, safety, and tolerability of dolutegravir-rilpivirine for the maintenance of virological suppression in adults with HIV-1: phase 3, randomised, non-inferiority SWORD-1 and SWORD-2 studies. Lancet. 2018;391:839-49.
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Question Last Updated
September 21st, 2023
September 21st, 2023
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