A 52-year-old nurse has a needlestick injury when assisting with a surgical procedure involving a patient with HIV. The nurse has a baseline HIV-1/2 antigen-antibody immunoassay test obtained and starts on postexposure prophylaxis (PEP) antiretroviral therapy. The nurse’s baseline HIV test result is available the next day and it is negative.
Which statement is correct regarding HIV testing following an occupational exposure to HIV?
Figure 1. Initial Counseling and Baseline Laboratory Studies in Persons with Occupational Exposure to HIV
Source: Modified from Kuhar DT, Henderson DK, Struble KA, et al. Updated US Public Health Service Guidelines for the Management of Occupational Exposures to Human Immunodeficiency Virus and Recommendations for Postexposure Prophylaxis. Infect Control Hosp Epidemiol. 2013;34:875-92.
Figure 2. Follow-Up Counseling and Monitoring in Person with Occupational Exposure to HIV.
Source: Modified from Kuhar DT, Henderson DK, Struble KA, et al. Updated US Public Health Service Guidelines for the Management of Occupational Exposures to Human Immunodeficiency Virus and Recommendations for Postexposure Prophylaxis. Infect Control Hosp Epidemiol. 2013;34:875-92.
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Question Last Updated
September 20th, 2023
September 20th, 2023
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